Where does the Bible say we can ignore Act.2:38 and Act.10:48?



If Paul says, “I was not sent to baptise”, 1Cor.1:17, then surely that indicates that in our doctrine today, water baptism is of little consequence. Why would Paul not bother to baptize people if it was crucial for salvation?

To expand on the topic, baptism was never an ordinance that belonged to the Body of Christ. It was a Jewish ordinance that was connected to priesthood. Every Jew in the Millennial Kingdom will be a priest of the Lord, ministering to the nations. Under the covenant laws of Moses, every priest needed to be washed. Thus, every Jew had to be baptised. This is why Jesus, who had no sin, had to also be baptised, so that he fulfilled the law requirements as a Jew. See Mat 3:14-15.

You cannot mix dispensational content. The scriptures you quote belong to the prophetic program for Israel. Baptism was part and parcel of the Kingdom gospel. Our gospel does not even hint on water immersion.

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